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Quizzes

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Chemistry
5 questions

Chem SA

Chemistry

History
5 questions

historia tema 2

Felipe V impuso una monarquía absoluta inspirada en la francesa tratando de convertir la corte real en el único centro de decisión. El rey castigó a los territorios de la Corona de Aragón por considerar que lo habían traicionado e invocó el derecho de conquista. Mediante los Decretos de Nueva Planta (1707-1715) abolió las Cortes, fueros, diputaciones generales, aduanas y sistemas fiscales de la Corona de Aragón, siendo sustituidas en su mayor parte por otras de nueva creación. Esto supuso la unión jurídica e institucional de España logrando una administración centralizada; sólo Navarra y las Provincias vascas conservaron sus fueros y su sistema fiscal por su fidelidad al bando borbónico durante la guerra. De esta manera, el gobierno polisinodial de los Austrias fue sustituido por el de gabinetes estatales formados por ministros o secretarios. Las funciones de los antiguos Consejos se trasladaron a las Secretarías de Estado y de Despacho, divididas en Guerra, Marina, Estado y Justicia, siendo el antecedente de los actuales ministerios. Las Cortes de los diferentes reinos (salvo las navarras), se integraron en las Cortes Generales del Reino, que en la práctica sólo se convocaban para jurar a los herederos de la Corona. Durante el reino de Fernando VI (1746-1759) se planeó la reforma de la Hacienda Real, comenzando por Castilla, diseñando una única contribución. Para ello el marqués de la Ensenada, ministro de Hacienda, elaboró el catastro, un estudio de los habitantes, propiedades territoriales, edificios, ganados, oficios, rentas, e incluso las características geográficas de cada población, para así recaudar impuestos de una manera más eficiente y ajustada. Esta reforma se vio frustrada por la oposición del clero y la nobleza (que seguían sin pagar impuestos), haciendo patente el poder que mantenían los estamentos privilegiados y los límites reales de la monarquía absoluta. La mayoría de la población vivía en áreas rurales y sobrevivía mediante una agricultura y ganadería de subsistencia. El problema era que alrededor del 75% de la tierra pertenecía a los estamentos privilegiados, pudiendo distinguirse las llamadas “manos muertas” de la Iglesia (terrenos que no se podían vender), los mayorazgos de la nobleza (conglomerados de terrenos destinados de manera indivisible en herencia al primogénito) y los realengos (propiedades del rey). Este sistema era criticado por los Ilustrados (fisiócratas) al estar muchas de estas propiedades abandonadas y no ser productivas. Carlos III (1759-1788) llevó a cabo reformas económicas como la cesión de tierras despobladas en Sierra Morena para que fueran pobladas por familias de colonos (1767) y la liberalización del comercio de cereales (1765). También desplegó políticas regalistas con la disolución de la Compañía de Jesús (1773), por su carácter antirreformista. Además, a lo largo del siglo, los soberanos fundaron manufacturas reales (tapices, vidrio, artillería, textiles, etc.) que, aunque crearon muchos puestos de trabajo, a la larga resultaron poco rentables. Se procuró mejorar la explotación de los virreinatos americanos para obtener más recursos. Para ello se crearon los virreinatos de Nueva Granada y del Río de la Plata, que se segregaron del de Perú. Sin embargo, el cambio más trascendental fue el fin del monopolio comercial de la Corona y del sistema de la Flota de Indias. Entre 1765 y 1778, Carlos III permitió el libre comercio entre varios puertos españoles y americanos, lo que estimuló ciertas exportaciones, especialmente de licores y textiles catalanes, lo que aportó un notable auge a las manufacturas de Cataluña. Estas reformas no estuvieron exentas de críticas e, incluso, de rebeliones, como la liderada por el indígena Tupac Amaru en Perú contra la mita y la esclavitud.

Foreign Languages & Linguistics
5 questions

anj

PRE-TEST Flat structure means that staff are organised on various levels, depending on responsibility, with, for example, junior and senior managers. hierarchical structure Company structure is a term used for planning a series of actions in order to achieve company goals. company strategy An office without walls dividing it into separate rooms is called a closed office. open-plan office What term is used for the place where the business of buying and selling shares by companies is done? stock exchange What term is used for the state that a company may declare when it runs out of money and is not able to pay its debts? Bankruptcy What term is used when borrowing money becomes difficult because banks reduce the amount they lend and charge high interest rates? credit crunch What term is used for a difficult time when there is less trade or business activity in a country than usual? Recession For example, 11. i______ p______ (when new team members are introduced and trained into a new job) help them feel part of the company’s culture. induction programmes Training can help drive a proactive and lifelong process of advancing one’s professional path, called 12. c______ d______. career development long-term programmes focus on a wider 13. s______ s______, meaning a combination of different abilities needed to do a particular job. skill set Training can have various forms or 14. d______ m______ (how it is organised): be it in-house, on the job, face to face, online or blended. delivery methods Mentoring has proved to be very useful, too; its participants, called 15. m______, together with their experienced mentors seek resources for learning … mentees A skilful tutor will explain the difference between a professional debate in which you have a particular idea or interest and follow what is best for you, called a 16. p______ n______, and a 17. p______ n______ in which both parts look for common interests and what is good for them. 16.positional negotiation 17.principled negotiation The term 18. d______ t______ refers to new ways of doing things that completely change the existing market, pushing existing businesses to the side. disruptive technology The term 19. d______ m______ describes a process of using a computer to examine large amounts of information, e.g. on customers, in order to find out what is not easily noticed at first sight about them. data mining Regarding digital marketing, the term 20. c______ corresponds to the number of sales generated in relation to the number of visits to a website. conversion rate Identify a mistake in a sentence. Write the correct term. A set of principles and practices that a company feels are important, e.g. equal pay for male and female workers, refers to company image. Company values WORKPLACE CULTURE 1. Company hierarchy refers to staff organised at different levels of responsibility in a 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. company. The values of a company are the beliefs and principles that the company considers important. Organisational behaviour looks at how people in an organisation work together and how this affects the organisation as a whole. A good atmosphere in a company means that employees enjoy working there and have good relationships with each other. A strategy is a plan for achieving an aim. Company structure means the way that the company is organised into departments and levels of responsibility. The image of a company refers to the way the company is seen by the public. An open-plan office is one which does not have walls dividing it into separate rooms. Flexibility refers to people or plans that can be changed easily to suit any new situation. EMPLOYEE RETENTION • Menial tasks – work which needs little skill • Sabbatical – a fixed period of time when someone takes an agreed break from their job • Promotion – the fact of getting a better paid, more responsible job • Work-life balance – a situation in which you are able to give the right amount of time and effort to your work and to your personal life outside work • Diverse work – jobs that are very different from each other TRAINING AND DEVELOPMENT 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. Training courses can help to drive career development. A key part of the induction programme is to help new team members feel a part of the company’s culture. Mentoring can be used for specific job-related training or more general career development. One of the really useful things about being a mentee is that my mentor introduces me to very important people in the industry. An advantage of online courses is that you can do them whenever, wherever. Whatever type or delivery method a company uses, training and development opportunities are important for both staff and the company itself. • When a company needs to check the standards reached in training sessions - it can use benchmarking to do this. • Employers are finding that making e-learning training available to employees - adds to their motivation as they can access the courses when and where they like. • A person with emotional intelligence can - control their emotions and show empathy. • Practical courses are used to teach - skills for the workplace. • A skills set comprises - what a person can or can’t do. • Competency at a job can be learned - through both training and experience. • When there is rapport between people, - it means that there is understanding and friendly agreement in a conversation. • We generally begin with a - needs analysis so that we know which training programmes to offer to which employee. • Do you think that mentoring programmes help junior staff to develop? • What do you think a mentee can learn from a more experienced staff member? • Is it better to have an external trainer for courses or can someone from the company take on this role? • What kinds of things do people learn in job-related training? • Should training programmes be based on what people said in a needs analysis questionnaire, or defined by their managers? • Should a mentor encourage a mentee to solve problems using analytical thinking or tell them what to do based on their own experience? • Why can it be difficult to find the motivation to learn while on the job? • What helps you to be motivated? HUMAN RESOURCE STRATEGIES TRAINING • functional approach • job-orientated • task-orientated • short-term goals • skills specific to a job EITHER TRAINING OR DEVELOPMENT • blended learning • in-house training • external training • mentoring DEVELOPMENT • cross-functional approach • general business skillspreparation for future challenges • long-term goals • preparation for career FINANCE – RECESSIONS AND DEPRESSIONS 1. An investment is something you buy, such as shares, bonds or property, to make a long- term profit. 2. All the money that you have saved, especially in a bank or financial institution is called savings. 3. Losses describe the situation when a company has less money than it did before, for example because sales have gone down. 4. 5. 6. 7. The business of buying and selling stocks and shares is called the stock market. When you are not able to pay your debts, this is called bankruptcy. A(n) loan is an amount of money that you borrow from a bank, financial institution, etc. A(n) credit crunch happens when borrowing money becomes difficult because banks reduce the amount they lend and charge high interest rates. 8. A legal arrangement by which you borrow money from a bank in order to buy a house, and pay back the money over a period of years is called a(n) mortgage. 9. A(n) recession is a difficult time when there is less trade or business activity in a country than usual. 10. A long period during which there is very little business activity is the worst type of financial crisis and is known as an economic depression. • To drop means to fall to a much lower level or amount, or decline. • To go bankrupt is to become insolvent, or without enough money to pay what you owe. • To lend is to let someone borrow money or something that belongs to you for a short time. • To recover is to return to a normal condition after a period of trouble or difficulty. • To boom means to grow rapidly, or be very successful as a business or trade. • To bail someone out means to help a person or a company that is in financial difficulty. • Profitability - the amount of profit a company makes • Make your mark - have an important or permanent effect on something • Boost - improve something and make it more successful • Bottom line - the amount of money that a business makes or loses • Make up ground - replace something that has been lost; become successful again DIGITAL BUSINESS Being disruptive usually refers to causing problems and preventing something from continuing in its usual way. In technology, it refers to an innovation that creates a new market and disrupts existing ones, displacing established companies and products, for example the mobile phone replacing fixed phones. 1. 2. 3. In the cloud’ refers to having software or space for storing information on the internet, rather than on your own computer. A data dump is the act of copying information from one computer to another. Data mining uses a computer to examine large amounts of data, for example about customers, and collect information that is not easily seen. 4. 5. 6. Conversion in digital marketing is the number of sales generated in relation to the number of visits to a website. In computing, a tool refers to a piece of software designed to do a particular task. It can also be a piece of equipment, or a device, or a skill for doing your job. In marketing, DMP stands for Digital Marketing platform. Verb Noun(s) Adjective(s) analyse analysis, analytics, analyst analytical anticipate anticipation anticipated convert conversion converted disrupt disruption, disruptor disruptive innovate innovation, innovator innovative irritate irritation irritable, irritated...

Literature & Language Arts
5 questions

lENGUA

ES UN QUIZ DE LOS RECURSOS LITERROS DE 1BACHILLERATO Q SE DAN EN ESPAÑA

Literature & Language Arts
5 questions

Population

PRE-CELTS The Pre-Celts lived in Britain. They grew cereals and bred animals such as cattle, pigs and sheep. They built large enclosed spaces to organise their settlements. They lived during the Bronze Age, a period in which they developed metalworking, produced pottery and manufactured leather and cloth. Their society included people who depended on granaries, roundhouses and enclosed spaces for protection and storage. CELTS The Celts gradually settled in north-western Europe and later in Britain. Their society included farmers, hunters, fishermen and metalworkers. They used tools such as the iron plough, and many of them lived in hill forts—groups of houses built on the top of hills, usually made of wood. Celtic women had rights, and Celtic men and women often wore clothes similar to what we imagine today as Celtic clothing. They spoke Celtic languages, including Welsh and Gaelic. The Celts were pagans. They worshipped natural elements and believed in the immortality of the soul. Druids acted as priests and judges; they gave justice and solved quarrels within extended families. ROMANS The Romans came from Italy. They built towns with a forum, public baths and built roads to transport troops and goods. Their arrival brought big changes to daily life, including new foods, new goods and new building styles. They also introduced Christianity. In 409 AD, the Romans withdrew their soldiers from Britain to defend Rome against barbarian attacks. Their departure marked the end of Roman control of Britain. ANGLO-SAXONS – From Concept Map to Discursive Text The Anglo-Saxons came mainly from Germany during the 5th and 6th centuries. They were divided into different groups, such as the Angles, the Saxons, and the Jutes, and they settled in various parts of England after the end of Roman rule. Their society was organised in a clear hierarchy that included the king, the thanes (noble warriors), the freemen, the ceorls, and the slaves. The Anglo-Saxon kingdoms included Northumbria, Mercia, Essex, Sussex, Wessex, and Kent. Each kingdom was independent, although they often fought against one another. The Anglo-Saxons were mostly farmers, but they were also fishermen, including deep-sea fishing. They lived in wooden houses, often built near a river, and their communities were organised into small villages. The hall, the largest building in the village, was an important communal place used for meetings and celebrations. Before Christianisation, the Anglo-Saxons believed in pagan gods and had many legends and stories, which were part of their oral tradition. Their religious practices began to change when Christianity returned to England. ✍️CHRISTIANISATION – Exact Transcription CHRISTIANISATION 597 → Pope Gregory I the Great sent a
monk to bring Christianity back to England
→ He succeeded 602 → He built the Cathedral of Canterbury
→ Augustine became the first Archbishop They started to build monasteries and
they became important cultural and communal
life centres And churches were important for education
and public administration. Anglo-Saxon Literature – Anglo-Saxon literature represents the earliest form of English literary tradition. It includes different genres, such as poetry, prose, religious writings, and historical documents. Much of this literature was originally transmitted orally by storytellers, often called scops, who played a crucial role in preserving cultural memory. A dominant form within Anglo-Saxon poetry is the epic poem, a long narrative composition that celebrates heroic deeds and great warriors. These poems typically recount the actions of legendary heroes who confront military challenges or supernatural forces. They are meant to exalt values such as courage, loyalty, and honour. Their aim was not only to entertain but also to teach moral lessons and inspire the community. Epic poetry often focuses on warfare, heroic struggles, and the glory gained through battle. One well-known example is the story of warriors who fought to protect their people and achieve everlasting fame. These narratives highlight the Anglo-Saxon belief in fate, and the desire to be remembered for heroic actions. Another important characteristic is that many of the works were anonymous. Since they were transmitted orally for generations before being written down, the names of the original authors were often lost. When the Church later started to write these stories, some elements of Christian ideology were added, blending with the earlier pagan traditions. In summary, Anglo-Saxon literature is a rich combination of oral tradition, heroic values, and cultural identity. It preserves the stories, beliefs, and ideals of one of the earliest periods of English history.

Literature & Language Arts
5 questions

edu sc

question to answer

Chemistry
5 questions

ema

https://www.scribd.com/document/838792975/Gold-Experience-B2-SB

Chemistry
5 questions

chemie

anorganic and organic

Chemistry
5 questions

exam

https://anyflip.com/nzeux/vfgi/basic chapter 10 from this website

History
5 questions

emarati studies 7

AES

History
5 questions

20th century

Study 20th british history

History
5 questions

WW2

World War 2

Foreign Languages & Linguistics
5 questions

Deonto

Un quiz sobre Deontología

Foreign Languages & Linguistics
5 questions

Catso

1 -Which sentence contains a noun clause? a) She is happy. b) He left yesterday. c) I know that she is honest. d) He runs fast. 2 - Identify the adverbial clause. a) She is the girl who won the prize. b) I know that he is late. c) I went home because I was tired. d) He bought the pen which is red. 3 - Identify the adjective clause. a) She is tall. b) The man who is standing there is my uncle. c) He ran quickly. d) I left because I was tired. 4 - Which is a complex sentence? a) He came and she went. b) I left because it was raining. c) She sings well. d) They played cricket. 5 - Which is a compound sentence? a) I saw him when he was leaving. b) The sun set and the stars appeared. c) Because he was late, I left. d) She sings beautifully. 6 - Choose the correct sentence. a) Each of the boys are here. b) Each of the boys is here. c) Every boy are here. d) All boy is here. 7 - Correct sentence: a) Neither of the answers are correct. b) Neither of the answers is correct. c) Neither answers is correct. d) Neither answers are correct. 8 -Which sentence is in subjunctive mood? a) She is clever. b) He is late. c) If I were a bird, I would fly. d) They are working. 9 - Which is in future perfect tense? a) He finishes his work. b) He has finished his work. c) He will have finished his work. d) He will finish his work now. 10 - Which is in past perfect tense? a) She was crying. b) She had cried. c) She cries. d) She is crying. 11 - Conditional sentence Type II is: a) If he comes, I will help him. b) If I were rich, I would help the poor. c) If you heat ice, it melts. d) If he had studied, he would have passed. 12 - Conditional sentence Type III is: a) If he comes, I will help. b) If I were you, I would try. c) If I had worked hard, I would have passed. d) If you boil water, it evaporates. 13. Identify the gerund. a) to swim b) swam c) swimming d) swim 14. Identify the infinitive. a) swimming b) swim c) to swim d) swam 15. Which has a dangling participle? a) Walking in the garden, I saw flowers. b) Walking down the street, the house appeared. c) Reading, he smiled. d) Studying hard, he succeeded. 16. Which sentence is correct? a) The committee were divided in its opinion. b) The committee was divided in its opinion. c) The committee are divided in opinion. d) Committee divided in their opinions. 17. Correct sentence: a) One of my friend live here. b) One of my friend lives here. c) One of my friends lives here. d) One of my friends live here. 18. Which is correct? a) She don’t like tea. b) She no like tea. c) She doesn’t like tea. d) She not likes tea. 19. Which is correct? a) They was happy. b) They were happy. c) They is happy. d) They be happy. You sent 20. Direct to indirect: He said, “I am busy.” a) He said that he is busy. b) He said that he was busy. c) He told he was busy. d) He said he busy. 21. Direct to indirect: She said, “I have done my work.” a) She said that she has done her work. b) She said that she had done her work. c) She said she did her work. d) She told she has done. 22. Direct to indirect: He said, “Where are you going?” a) He asked where I am going. b) He asked me where I was going. c) He told where I was going. d) He asked where you are going. 23. Direct to indirect: He said, “Did you finish the task?” a) He asked did I finish. b) He asked if I had finished the task. c) He asked had I finish. d) He asked if I finish task. 24. Direct to indirect: Teacher said, “Work hard.” a) Teacher said us work hard. b) Teacher told work hard. c) Teacher advised us to work hard. d) Teacher said us to work. 25. Select the word that is an antonym for “gregarious.” a) Sociable b) Introverted c) Friendly d) Outgoing 26. Synonym of “ephemeral” is: a) eternal b) permanent c) short-lived d) endless 27. Antonym of “lucid” is: a) clear b) bright c) obscure d) transparent 28. Synonym of “mitigate” is: a) worsen b) lessen c) increase d) heighten 29. Antonym of “magnanimous” is: a) generous b) petty c) noble d) kind 30. Synonym of “candid” is: a) dishonest b) secret c) frank d) false 31. Antonym of “abstruse” is: a) complex b) difficult c) clear d) hard 32. Synonym of “tenacious” is: a) weak b) soft c) persistent d) fragile 33. Antonym of “ardent” is: a) passionate b) indifferent c) eager d) devoted 34. Synonym of “ambiguous” is: a) clear b) vague c) definite d) certain 35. Antonym of “benevolent” is: a) kind b) generous c) malevolent d) helpful 36. Synonym of “altruistic” is: a) selfish b) greedy c) selfless d) arrogant 37. Antonym of “innocuous” is: a) harmless b) harmful c) safe d) gentle 38. Synonym of “succinct” is: a) lengthy b) detailed c) concise d) expand 39. Antonym of “placid” is: a) calm b) agitated c) peaceful d) serene 40. Synonym of “erudite” is: a) ignorant b) foolish c) learned d) uneducated You sent 41. Antonym of “boisterous” is: a) noisy b) quiet c) rowdy d) loud 42. Synonym of “prolific” is: a) barren b) productive c) empty d) fruitless 43. Antonym of “austere” is: a) strict b) severe c) luxurious d) harsh 44. Synonym of “melancholy” is: a) joyful b) sadness c) delight d) pleasure 45. Antonym of “meticulous” is: a) careful b) precise c) careless d) thorough 46. Synonym of “peril” is: a) safety b) danger c) peace d) relief 47. Antonym of “copious” is: a) abundant b) scarce c) plentiful d) overflowing 48. Synonym of “pragmatic” is: a) theoretical b) practical c) imaginary d) dreamy 49. Antonym of “vehement” is: a) forceful b) mild c) violent d) strong 50. Synonym of “transient” is: a) eternal b) temporary c) infinite d) lasting 51. “The child is the father of the man” is an example of: a) metaphor b) paradox c) simile d) irony 52. “Life is but a walking shadow” is: a) simile b) metaphor c) personification d) oxymoron 53. “The waves clasp one another” is: a) simile b) metaphor c) personification d) hyperbole 54. “He is as cunning as a fox” is: a) metaphor b) simile c) irony d) exaggeration 55. “All the world’s a stage” is: a) simile b) metaphor c) irony d) hyperbole 56. “The thunder roared in the sky” is: a) simile b) personification c) metaphor d) exaggeration 57. “Sweet sorrow” is an example of: a) simile b) metaphor c) oxymoron d) irony 58. “The pen is mightier than the sword” is an example of: a) simile b) metaphor c) metonymy d) personification 59. “The crown will decide the matter” is: a) simile b) metaphor c) metonymy d) synecdoche 60. “Pakistan won the match” (meaning the team won) is: a) metaphor b) irony c) metonymy d) simile 61. “He is a lion in the battlefield” is: a) simile b) metaphor c) exaggeration d) irony 62. “A fleet of ships” is: a) paradox b) collective noun c) simile d) hyperbole 63. “The kettle is boiling” is: a) personification b) metonymy c) simile d) irony 64. “The hand that rocks the cradle rules the world” is: a) irony b) synecdoche c) metaphor d) simile 65. “O death, where is thy sting?” is: a) metaphor b) apostrophe c) irony d) simile 65. “O death, where is thy sting?” is: a) metaphor b) apostrophe c) irony d) simile 66. “She sells seashells by the seashore” is an example of: a) simile b) metaphor c) alliteration d) personification 67. “He has no guts” is: a) irony b) metaphor c) synecdoche d) oxymoron 68. “Hiss of the snake” is: a) onomatopoeia b) metaphor c) simile d) alliteration 69. “Parting is such sweet sorrow” is: a) irony b) oxymoron c) paradox d) exaggeration 70. “Her voice was music to my ears” is: a) simile b) metaphor c) personification d) exaggeration 71 - Which is correct passive: “They are repairing the road.” a) The road has repaired. b) The road repairs. c) The road is being repaired. d) The road repaired. 72 - Passive of: “She will write a letter.” a) A letter is written. b) A letter was written. c) A letter will be written. d) A letter has written. 73 - Passive of: “They have done the work.” a) The work is done. b) The work was done. c) The work has been done. d) The work completed. 74 - Passive of: “She is singing a song.” a) A song is sung. b) A song is being sung. c) A song was sung. d) A song has sung. 75 - Passive of: “The police arrested the thief.” a) The thief arrests. b) The thief was arrest. c) The thief was arrested by the police. d) The thief arresting. 76 - Indirect: He said, “I can swim.” a) He said he can swim. b) He said that he could swim. c) He said he swim. d) He said he swims. 77 - Indirect: She said, “May I come in?” a) She asked may she come in. b) She asked if she might come in. c) She asked she may come in. d) She asked she might came. 78 - Indirect: He said, “Where do you live?” a) He asked where I live. b) He asked me where I lived. c) He asked me where I am living. d) He asked where I lives. 79 - Indirect: They said, “Shut the door.” a) They said me shut the door. b) They told me shut the door. c) They told me to shut the door. d) They told me shut door. 80 - Indirect: Ali said, “Let’s play cricket.” a) Ali said us to play cricket. b) Ali told us we play cricket. c) Ali suggested that we should play cricket. d) Ali said we to play cricket. 81 - Which is a Type I conditional? a) If I were you, I would try. b) If it rains, we will stay home. c) If I had studied, I would have passed. d) If he comes, I go. 82 - Which is a Type II conditional? a) If he comes, I go. b) If it rains, we will stay. c) If I were rich, I would help the poor. d) If you heat ice, it melts. 83 - Which is a Type III conditional? a) If you heat ice, it melts. b) If he comes, I go. c) If I had worked hard, I would have passed. d) If I were you, I would try. 84 - Identify the tense: “He will have been working for two hours.” a) Present perfect b) Future perfect continuous c) Past continuous d) Future continuous ...

Foreign Languages & Linguistics
5 questions

Examen de inglés Tema 3 y 4

Un cuestionario de 5 preguntas de ingles

Physics
5 questions

Kinematics

Kinematics

Physics
5 questions

21

Failure Analysis and Prevention Dr. Dheerendra Kumar Dwivedi Department of Mechanical and Industrial Engineering Indian Institute of Technology, Roorkee Lecture - 21 General Procedure of Failure Analysis: NDT for Failure Analysis Hello I welcome you all in this presentation related with the subject failure analysis and prevention. And we are talking about the general practice and procedures for the failure analysis. And in this connection we have already talked about the 2 points, one was like the collection of the background information of the failed component and the second one was the preliminary examination of the failed component, and after this we have got the failed component we need to study the failed component with regard to the presence of discontinuities or the stresses which have been experienced by the component during the service. (Refer Slide Time: 01:00) So, for that purpose we need to perform the non-destructive testing. So, non-destructive testing, so non-destructive testing for failure analysis. So, what is the kind of a role of the NDT in failure analysis? So, you know the primary purpose of conducting the NDT on the failed component is a to basically identify the presence of discontinuities in the component if they are there. So, establishing establishing presence of discontinuities, defects, cracks, pores etcetera if they are present if any present in the present where. So, this presence is to be identified especially with regard to the certain locations like; I it may be near fracture surfaces or in the bulk base metal itself. So, there will be the, and this will be done for the 2 different purposes. the NDT of the bulk material will help us to see whether the material is sound or not or if it is having the inherited discontinuity due to the use of imperfect base metal itself. Or if the discontinuities are present or defects are present like cracks, and other things are present near the fracture surface then it may indicate that either these have been caused by the service conditions or these were presented due to the various regions related with the improper manufacturing. Ah. So, once these are identified identification and establishment of these discontinuities is done, basically with regard to the shape and the size of a discontinuities ah. So, the main aim is a to relate the possible contribution of these discontinuities with the failure or fracture. So, if the discontinuities are there of the large size at the critical location then they of course, can be considered as a major possible contributor towards the failure, but that will be established only through the fracture mechanics analysis of the entire situation in light of the size and shape and the location of these discontinuities in the main component which has failed. So, it provides the basis for the failure analysis due to the presence of the discontinuities if they are established through the NDT. So, this is one of the aspects and another one is to do the analysis with regard to the approximate loading of the machine component, or the stress induced in a particular part it also indicates the kind of the strain especially in especially in the high strain areas. So, these are some of the things apart from that it can also help us to see if there is any presence of the residual stresses in the component and if they have contributed towards the failure. So, these are the 2 types of the things which can be done through the use of NDT in connection with the failure analysis. So, establishing the presence of discontinuities and then investigating their role towards the failure. And the second one is like the kind of the load which has acted on to the machine or a particular component kind of stresses which have been is induced or what is the effect of the service conditions in terms of the load on to the strain which has been induced or the kind of residual stresses where which were there which were present. So, apart from the design load if we are able to establish this through the NDT; that the component has been subjected to the certain kind of the load and certain kind of the stresses which you are beyond the acceptable level for that particular component beyond the allowable level of the stresses for that component. So, this can be used as a possible way to relate with the failure. So, and it can also indicate the possibility of the accidental load or the abnormal load under which the failure has taken place with respect to the design load or the expected load. So, these are the 2 main objectives of conducting the NDT of the failed and one we are able to identify and establish the size, shape and the type of discontinuity is it is location, where they are present and then efforts will be made to relate them with the failure. So, and the second one is to identify that it will help to estimate the kind of the load stresses strain which have been induced as a result of the loading during the service. So, that can be related with the possibility of the normal load or abnormal load accidental load so likewise. So, now how it is conducted? So for establishing the defects and the discontinuities. (Refer Slide Time: 07:45) In the failed component, we have one category of the methods and for establishing the load stresses strain we have another category of the method. So, this falls under the experimental stress analysis. And a for determining or establishing the defects and discontinuities in the failed component we have the another category of the methods. So, we will be talking about these methods in detail. So, there are 4 5 common methods of the establishing the discontinuities and defects in the failed component ah, like liquid penetrant test this is also known as DPT dye penetrant test this is one. Second is the magnetic particle test, third is et current test, 4th is ultrasonic test, and the fifth is like radio graphy test wherein we have like X ray or the gamma ray testing of the metals. So, each type of the test of for certain advantages and disadvantages over the others so, we will take up each type of the test one by one sequentially. So, like say the first is liquid penetrant test. (Refer Slide Time: 09:40) This is also known as dye penetrant test. This test is primarily used for the surface defects, which may be in form of the like cracks, pores which are open or the blow holes are like in weld joints, crater cracks, crater cracks or undercuts all these things can be easily established with the help of the dye penetrant test. So, this is primarily for the surface cracks. So, very fine pores and the cracks etcetera can be easily identified and established with regard to their size and location where they are present. (Refer Slide Time: 10:46) So, in this set test what we do basically like say if this is the component and it is having some kind of crack like this. (Refer Slide Time: 10:55) So, first of all the surface to be inspected of the failed component is cleaned. And after the cleaning we apply the dye over the surface. So, dye is basically thin liquid metal with the color so kerosene kind of thing can be used for this purpose with the color. So, whenever it is a spread over the surface so, thin liquid by the capillary action seeped into or gets filled into those fine pores or cracks and once this is given sometime after spraying the this one is cleaned. So, after cleaning all these things are basically removed from the surface. And thereafter we apply developer, so developer is sprayed is spread over the surface. So, when the developer is applied developer or the chalk powder is spread over like the chalk powder n is one of the form of applying the developer. So, since the dye has already been cleaned from the surface so all those regions where from it has been completely removed. The developer or chalk powder will not have any change of it is color, but wherever there is a pore or there is a crack at that location the developer will absorb the liquid dye which has seeped into these locations of the cracks and the pores. So, and these areas your there will be change of colour. So, the location where the change of color in the developer is taking place or the location where or the length up to which this change in color is taking place these 2 things will be indicating the size and the location. So, the distance up to which there is a change in color that will be indicating. The size of the discontinuities similarly where the change in color is taking place that will be indicating the location where such kind of the discontinuity is present. So, this kind of method can be used on any kind of the material whether it is a magnetic, non-magnetic, metallic, non-metallic, electrical conducting, non-electrical conducting etcetera. (Refer Slide Time: 13:55) The next method is the magnetic magnetic particle test. this test is basically used for the surface and near surface defects mostly these may be in the form of the, like say mostly these may be in the form of like cracks or pores etcetera ah, but, but very the deep surface defects cannot be established and identified through the magnetic particle test this is one thing, second mostly the ferromagnetic materials. So, the discontinuities and the defect in ferromagnetic materials can be evaluated or assessed by this method. (Refer Slide Time: 14:55) For non-magnetic materials and the poorly magnetic materials it cannot be applied with and therefore, mainly this one is applied for in the ferromagnetic materials. (Refer Slide Time: 15:19) So, mostly for like say the steels the cast iron kind of the components their discontinuities can be easily checked through the this magnetic particle test. To understand this test we need to see the certain basics of the magnetism. (Refer Slide Time: 15:37) Where we know that in mag each magnet there is a north pole and there is a south pole. So, the magnetic lines of the forces take exit from the north pole and...

Biology
5 questions

bone

extract radiographie then ask questions about them

Biology
5 questions

CHAPTER 12

hi

Biology
5 questions

HS 25

/Users/sophieiseli/Desktop/Grosse ZF.docx

Geography & World Cultures
5 questions

Population

A Bevölkerung im Wandel 1. Weltbevölkerung 1.1 Einführung Zurzeit (2025) leben 8,3 Milliarden Menschen auf der Erde. Jede Sekunde kommen statistisch gesehen 3,3 Menschen dazu. Prognosen sagen voraus, dass im Jahr 2050 etwa 9,8 Milliarden Menschen leben werden. Als Kolumbus 1492 Amerika erreichte, lebten 500 Millionen Menschen auf der Erde. Es dauerte 300 Jahre, ehe sich die Weltbevölkerung auf 1 Milliarde verdoppelt hatte. 1960 zählte die Erde bereits 3 Milliarden Bewohner und es brauchte nur noch 40 Jahre zur Verdopplung auf 6 Milliarden Menschen im Jahr 1999. Auftrag: Weltbevölkerung 2025 Wenn die Welt ein Dorf mit nur 100 EinwohnerInnen wäre, wären davon: 2050 Die Zahl der Dorfbewohner wäre im Jahr 2050 121 Menschen: 1.2 Die Bevölkerungsentwicklung Die Demografie (grch.: demos „Volk“ und grch.: graphein „schreiben, zeichnen“) (=Bevölkerungslehre) versucht den Ursachen und Wirkungen von Bevölkerungsveränderungen auf den Grund zu gehen. Sie bietet Messgrössen und Verfahren an zur Ermittlung des Aufbaus, der Verteilung und des Wachstums der Bevölkerung. 1.2.1 Wie misst man die Bevölkerungsentwicklung? Die Gesamtbevölkerung eines Gebietes ist abhängig von zwei Grössen, von der natürlichen Bevölkerungsentwicklung und der Migration. Ein Mathematiker würde sagen, die Gesamtbevölkerung ist eine Funktion von zwei Grössen: Die natürliche Bevölkerungsentwicklung ergibt sich durch die Differenz von Geburten (G) und Sterbefällen (S). Überwiegen die Geburten, so wächst die Bevölkerung, im umgekehrten Fall schrumpft sie. Diese einfache Beziehung wird durch die Migration überlagert. Der Fachausdruck Migration (aus lat. migrare "wandern") heisst Wanderung. Einwanderer (E) erhöhen die Gesamtbevölkerung, Auswanderer (A) senken sie. Die Gesamtbevölkerung zu einem bestimmten Zeitpunkt erhält man, indem zu einer Anfangsbevölkerung (Ba) die Differenz aus Geburten und Sterbefällen sowie die Differenz aus der Ein- und Auswanderung addiert. Als Formel ergibt sich: Das Gewicht der beiden Differenzen innerhalb der Beziehung hängt ab vom betrachteten Massstab. Während in einer kleinen Raumeinheit wie etwa einem Land die Ein- bzw. Auswanderer einen grossen Einfluss auf die Bevölkerungsentwicklung haben können, sind die in einer sehr grossen Raumeinheit wie etwa in einem Kontinent weniger wichtig. Das liegt daran, dass die Migration, von einem grossräumigen Blickwinkel aus betrachtet, meist innerhalb der Raumeinheit erfolgt. Untersucht man die ganze Erde, so ist die Wanderungsbilanz gleich Null, solange Kolonien auf dem Mond Sciencefiction bleiben. Die Abbildung unten zeigt den Zusammenhang zwischen der natürlichen Bevölkerungs entwicklung und der Migration bildlich. Wie der Wasserspiegel in einem Regenfass ist die Bevölkerungszahl einer Region bestimmt durch Zu- bzw. Abflüsse – Wasser in einem, Menschen im andern Fall. (a) In einem geschlossenen System, wie der Erde als Ganzem, spielt nur die natürliche Bevölkerungsentwicklung eine Rolle. (b) In einem offenen System ist auch die Migration zu berücksichtigen. Natürliche Bevölkerungsentwicklung Die einfachste Art, die natürliche Bevölkerungsentwicklung zu beschreiben, geschieht über Ziffern. Dabei wird die Anzahl der jährlichen Lebendgeburten und Sterbefälle auf je 1‘000 Einwohner erfasst. Im ersten Fall spricht man von der Geburtenziffer (auch Geburtenrate), im zweiten von der Sterbeziffer (auch Sterberate). Betrachte folgendes Beispiel: In einem Land mit 100‘000 EinwohnerInnen ereignen sich im Laufe eines Jahres 4‘000 Geburten und 2‘000 Todesfälle. Die Geburtenziffer berechnest du mit einem einfachen Dreisatz. Auf 100 Einwohner erhältst du 4 Geburten, auf 1‘000 Einwohner zehnmal mehr, also 40. In Promille ausgedrückt ergibt sich eine Geburtenziffer von 40‰. Genau gleich verfährst du mit den Todesfällen – du erhältst eine Sterbeziffer von 20‰. Die Geburten- bzw. Sterbeziffer findest du in den meisten amtlichen Statistiken. Migration In einer kleinräumigen Betrachtungsweise wirken sich Bevölkerungsumverteilungen durch die Migration stark auf die Veränderung der Gesamtbevölkerung aus. Insbesondere die Abwanderung der ländlichen Bevölkerung in die Grossstädte führt in vielen Entwicklungsländern zu grossen Problemen. Während sich der ländliche Raum entleert, sammeln sich in der Stadt zu viele Leute auf zu engem Raum. Fertilitätsrate, Kinderzahl pro Frau Die demographischen Kennziffern der Geburten- bzw. Sterberate beziehen sich auf Gesamtbevölkerungen, sie erscheinen oft wenig anschaulich und immer unpersönlich. Betrachten wir deshalb auch die Bevölkerungsentwicklung aus dem Blickwinkel der Individuen. Ob eine Bevölkerung wächst oder schrumpft, hängt letztlich immer davon ab, wie viele Nachkommen die Individuen haben. Ausschlaggebend ist hier die Fertilitätsrate oder kurz Fertilität (aus lat. fertilis "fruchtbar“) genannt. Dieser Wert gibt für eine Bevölkerung an, wie viele lebend geborene Kinder eine Frau im gebärfähigen Alter von 15 – 45 Jahren durchschnittlich zur Welt bringt. Die Abbildung zeigt dir, wie stark die Werte weltweit auseinanderklaffen. Besonders interessant ist nun die Frage, wie viele Kinder eine Frau haben dürfte, damit die Bevölkerung längerfristig nicht weiterwächst. Ohne viel zu überlegen, könnte man sagen: Wird jedes Paar durch ein neues ersetzt, bleibt die Bevölkerung langfristig stabil. Da rund die Hälfte der Kinder Mädchen sind, darf jedes dieser Mädchen genau zwei Kinder haben. Die Kinderzahl pro Frau für eine stabile Bevölkerung wäre somit 2.0. Untersuchen wir diesen Zusammenhang etwas genauer: Zunächst gilt es zu beachten, dass nicht jedes der geborenen Mädchen selbst auch Kinder haben wird, da infolge der hohen Kindersterblichkeit in armen Ländern viele Mädchen gar nie ein fortpflanzungsfähiges Alter erreichen. Ausserdem ist das Geschlechterverhältnis bei der Geburt nicht 1:1, sondern auf 1000 Geburten nur etwa 485 bis 490 Mädchen. Deshalb liegt der gesuchte Wert nicht bei 2.0, sondern etwas 2,13. Fertilitätsrate nach Staaten für das Jahr 2024. Quelle: https://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gesamtfertilit%C3%A4tsrate Nullwachstum auf dem Ersatzniveau der Fertilität Ausgeklügelte Berechnungen der Demographen ergeben einen Wert von durchschnittlich 2.13 Kindern pro Frau. Auf 100 Frauen müssen also im Verlauf ihres Lebens 213 Kinder entfallen, damit jedes Individuum einer Bevölkerung genau ersetzt wird. Diesen wichtigen Wert nennt man Ersatzniveau der Fertilität. Hat ein Land eine Kinderzahl pro Frau von 2.13, so wird seine Bevölkerung nach längerer Zeit ein gleich gross bleibendes Niveau erreichen. Man spricht dann vom Nullwachstum der Bevölkerung. Betrachten wir nochmals die Abbildung: Du siehst, dass in vielen ärmeren Ländern das Ersatzniveau der Fertilität deutlich übertroffen wird. Der weltweite Durchschnittswert liegt bei 2.2 (Jahr 2025). Es werden demnach Jahr für Jahr mehr Erdenbewohner geboren, als durch die natürliche Sterblichkeit Platz für sie geschaffen wird. Mit dieser Erkenntnis bist du beim Bevölkerungswachstum angelangt. Aufgaben: (Quelle: Anthropogeographie, compendio 2009 und 2014) 1. Im Jahr 2024 betrug die Geburtenziffer in der Schweiz 8.69‰ bei einer Gesamtbevölkerung von 9'002’763 Einwohnern. Wie oft lieferte demnach der Storch in diesem Jahr sein Bündel ab? 2. In der Schweiz beträgt die Kinderzahl pro Frau ca. 1.5 und liegt somit unter dem Ersatzniveau der Fertilität. Gleichwohl ist die Gesamtbevölkerung in der Schweiz in den letzten Jahren langsam, aber stetig gestiegen. Erkläre diesen Umstand! 3. 2023 betrug die Kinderzahl pro Frau in Italien 1.2, in Burkina Faso (Westafrika) hingegen 4.2. Wie werden sich die Gesamtbevölkerungen dieser beiden Länder in Zukunft entwickeln? 1.2.2 Die Gesetzmässigkeiten des Bevölkerungswachstums Beachte zu Beginn den wichtigen Unterschied zwischen den Begriffen Wachstum und Wachstumsrate: • Wachstum bezeichnet eine absolute Zunahme, d.h. den Anstieg der Bevölkerung um einen bestimmten Betrag. So wuchs die Weltbevölkerung von 2000 bis 2010 um den Betrag von 800 Millionen Menschen. • Die Wachstumsrate (r) hingegen steht für eine relative Zunahme. Sie meint die durchschnittliche, jährliche Zunahme in Prozenten ausgedrückt. Die Wachstumsrate eines geschlossenen Systems ergibt sich als Differenz aus der Geburten- und Sterbeziffer. Liegen negative Werte vor, sinkt die Bevölkerungszahl. Beachte die Verhältnisse: Geburten- und Sterbeziffern werden in Promille (‰) angegeben, die Wachstumsrate hingegen in Prozenten (%). Ein vereinfachtes Rechenbeispiel für ein geschlossenes System wo keine Migration stattfindet: In einem Land ereignen sich auf 100'000 Einwohner und Einwohnerinnen jährlich 4'000 Geburten und 2'000 Todesfälle. Am Jahresende leben somit auf je 1'000 Einwohner 20 Menschen mehr als zu Jahresbeginn. Die Wachstumsrate beträgt somit 2%. Regel: Wachstumsrate (geschlossenes System) Beispiel: = Geburtenziffer – Sterbeziffer = 40‰ - 20‰ = 20‰ = 2% Hätte dieses Land 100 Millionen Einwohner, so lebten dort nach einem Jahr 2 Millionen Menschen mehr. Die momentane (2024) Weltbevölkerung wächst jährlich um ca. 0.9%. Sie wächst allerdings keinesfalls gleichmässig im Raum, sondern mit grossen regionalen Unterschieden: • In den Industrieländern findet nur ein ...................................... oder gar .......................................... Wachstum statt. • Für die meisten Entwicklungsländer jedoch ist ein .................................. Bevölkerungswachstum kennzeichnend. Regionales Bevölkerungswachstum (2024): (Kontinente korrekt einsetzen) 2.3% 0.8% 0.6% 0.1% 0.7% Welt -0.3% 0.9% Aufgabe 1: In einem Land mit 10 Mio. Einwohner kommen jährlich 500...

Geography & World Cultures
5 questions

Geography

List African countries and match with their Capital cities

Geography & World Cultures
5 questions

fc

fc

Nutrition & Wellness
5 questions

Carbohidratos

Carbohidratos

Legal & Corporate Compliance
5 questions

Penal

h

Computer Science
5 questions

Cadenas

Programación

IT & Networking
5 questions

Ch 5 introduction to database

ICT: database

Fitness & Sports
5 questions

Hpe

List the 10 Components of Fitness and demonstrate a basic understanding of all 10 Muscular endurance Cardiovascular endurance Strength Speed Power Balance Agility Reaction Time Flexibility Coordination Identify the 3 fuel sources of energy production Carbohydrates Proteins Fats Explain how long ATP lasts for in the muscles before it needs to be resynthesised. ATP lasts for 2-3 seconds preexisting without PC in the muscles with short bursts of intensity before it needs to resynthesise. Explain how ATP is resynthesised ATP is resynthesised by adding a phosphate group back onto ADP (adenosine diphosphate his requires energy. The body gets this energy from the breakdown of fuels such as: Phosphocreatine (PC) Glucose (anaerobically or aerobically) Fats (aerobically) Identify the name of the 3 energy systems ATP-PC System (also called the Phosphocreatine or Alactic system) Anaerobic Glycolytic System (also called the Lactic Acid system) Aerobic System (Oxygen system) Explain how long PC will supply energy for high intensity work before stores are depleted Phosphocreatine (PC) can supply energy for about 8–10 seconds of high-intensity work before its stores are depleted. During very explosive activities (like sprinting or jumping), PC breaks down rapidly to resynthesise ATP, but because the stores in the muscles are small, they run out quickly — usually within 8 to 12 seconds, with 10 seconds being the commonly accepted average. Explain how long it takes to fully replenish the ATP-PC system once it is depleted It takes about 2–3 minutes to fully replenish the ATP-PC system once it is depleted. Here’s the breakdown: Around 50% of phosphocreatine (PC) is restored within 30 seconds. About 75% is restored in 60 seconds. Full resynthesis usually requires 2–3 minutes, depending on fitness level and oxygen availability. So, complete recovery of the ATP-PC system takes roughly 3 minutes. Identify the fuel source used when the lactic acid system is contributing to energy production The fuel source used by the lactic acid system is glucose (or glycogen, which is the stored form of glucose in the muscles and liver). So the answer is: Glucose/Glycogen. Identify the by-product of the lactic acid system Lactic Acid is created as a by-product of the lactic acid system which comes to affect 30-60 seconds of anaerobic excelsis or short intensity excersies. Explain how this by-product can affect performance It causes a burning feeling in the muscles. It makes the muscles tire more quickly. It becomes harder to maintain power, speed, or intensity. So, the build-up of lactic acid leads to fatigue, which reduces performance during hard efforts like sprinting or fast-paced exercise. Recall how long the lactic acid system can be used (depending on intensity& duration) 30-60 seconds high intensity workouts, 1-2 minutes moderate intensity workouts Explain how to remove lactic acid from the muscles The best way to remove lactic acid is active recovery, supported by oxygen intake, hydration, and light movement to keep blood flowing. Identify the order in which the body breaks down the 3 fuels for aerobic energy contribution carbohydrates (glucose/glycogen) – used first because they are the quickest to break down for ATP. Fats (triglycerides) – used once carbohydrate stores start to decline, especially during longer, moderate-intensity exercise. Proteins (amino acids) – used last and only in small amounts, usually during prolonged exercise or when carbohydrate and fat stores are low. Explain how long the body can utilise the aerobic system (depending on fuel source availability) The aerobic system can provide energy from minutes to several hours, with carbs fuelling shorter durations at higher intensity and fats supporting longer, lower-intensity activity. Explain the following training principles F, D, I, PO, S, V Frequency, intensity, Progressive overload, Specificity, variation Summary: Frequency: How often Intensity: How hard Progressive Overload: Gradual increase Specificity: Targeted to goals Variation: Change to prevent plateau and maintain interest Identify which two principles relate directly to specificity Specificity – by definition, it means training should match the sport, muscle groups, energy systems, or fitness goals. Variation – adjusting exercises, intensity, or type can help maintain relevance to the specific goal and prevent plateau, supporting specificity over time. So, Specificity and Variation work together to ensure training is targeted and effective. Explain the importance of progressive overload in a training program Progressive overload ensures consistent improvement, helps achieve goals, and keeps training safe and effective. Recall the 5 training methods (FCIRC) Circuit, Fartlek, Interval, Resistance, Continuous. Explain the benefits of each method circuit Training Description: Series of different exercises performed in rotation. Benefits: Improves overall fitness (strength, endurance, flexibility, cardiovascular fitness). Can target multiple muscle groups. Can be adapted for all fitness levels. Keeps training varied and engaging. 2. Fartlek Training Description: “Speed play” — alternates between fast and slow running, usually outdoors. Benefits: Improves aerobic and anaerobic fitness simultaneously. Develops speed, endurance, and recovery. Flexible and less structured, reducing boredom. 3. Interval Training Description: Periods of high-intensity work followed by rest or low-intensity recovery. Benefits: Improves speed, power, and cardiovascular fitness. Increases anaerobic and aerobic capacity. Efficient for burning calories in a short time. 4. Resistance Training Description: Uses weights, resistance bands, or bodyweight to strengthen muscles. Benefits: Increases muscular strength and endurance. Improves bone density and joint stability. Boosts metabolism and helps with body composition. 5. Continuous Training Description: Steady-state exercise performed at a moderate intensity for a prolonged period (e.g., jogging, swimming). Benefits: Improves aerobic fitness and cardiovascular endurance. Strengthens the heart and lungs. Easy to monitor intensity and safe for beginners.

Psychology & Sociology
2 questions

psych

bandura et al a level psychology 9990

Psychology & Sociology
5 questions

Sociološke teorije

Sociologija

Psychology & Sociology
5 questions

I/O

Employee Selection: Recruiting and Interviewing Job Analysis  As discussed in Chapter 2, job analysis is the cornerstone of personnel selection. Remember, unless a complete and accurate picture of a job is obtained, it is virtually impossible to select excellent employees. Thus, during the job analysis process, in addition to identifying the important tasks and duties, it is essential to identify the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to perform the job.  Therefore, the methods used to select employees should tie in directly with the results of the job analysis. In other words, every essential knowledge, skill, and ability identified in the job analysis that is needed on the first day of the job should be tested, and every test must somehow relate to the job analysis. Recruitment  An important step in selecting employees is recruitment: attracting people with the right qualifications (as determined in the job analysis) to apply for the job.  The first decision is whether to promote someone from within the organization (internal recruitment) or to hire someone from outside the organization (external recruitment).  To enhance employee morale and motivation, it is often good to give current employees an advantage in obtaining new internal positions.  Internal promotions can be a great source of motivation, but if an organization always promotes employees from within, it runs the risk of having a stale workforce that is devoid of the many ideas that new employees bring with them from their previous employment settings.  Heavy reliance on internal sources is thought to perpetuate the racial, gender, and age composition of the workforce. Thus, a balance between promoting current employees and hiring outside applicants is needed. Media Advertisements Newspaper Ads  Running ads in periodicals such as local newspapers or professional journals is a common method of recruiting employees. Although many organizations use newspaper ads, especially for local positions, in 2007 recruiters considered print advertising as one of the least effective recruitment methods.  Newspaper advertisements typically ask the applicant to respond in one of four ways: calling, applying in person, sending a résumé directly to the organization, or sending a résumé to a blind box.  Calling. Applicants are asked to respond by calling when an organization wants to either quickly screen applicants or hear an applicant’s phone voice (e.g., for telemarketing or receptionist positions).  Apply-in-person ads. Organizations use apply-in-person ads when they don’t want their phones tied up by applicants calling (e.g., a travel agency or pizza delivery restaurant), want the applicants to fill out a specific job application, or want to get a physical look at the applicant.  Send-résumé ads. Applicants are asked to send a résumé directly to the company (send-résumé ads) when the organization expects a large response and does not have the resources to speak with thousands of applicants.  Blind box. The fourth type of ad directs applicants to send a résumé to a blind box. Organizations use blind boxes for three main reasons.  First, the organization doesn’t want its name in public. This might be the case when a well- known company such as AT&T or IBM has a very specific job opening and is concerned that rumors will spread that there are many openings for a variety of positions. This could result in an avalanche of résumés, many from unqualified applicants.  Second, the company might fear that people wouldn’t apply if they knew the name of the company. For example, an ad for sales positions would probably not draw a large response if applicants were asked to send their résumés to a funeral home (even though selling burial plots can be a lucrative job).  Third, on rare occasions, a company needs to terminate an employee but wants first to find a replacement. As you can imagine, running an ad containing the name of the company would not be smart if the current employee were not aware that he or she was about to be fired. Writing Recruitment Ads  Ads displaying the company emblem and using creative illustrations attract the greatest number of applicants, but ads that include the salary range and a company phone number attract the highest- quality applicants.  Ads containing realistic information about the job, rather than information that is “too good to be true” increase applicant attraction to the organization.  Ads containing detailed descriptions of the job and organization provide applicants with an idea of how well they would fit into an organization and result in positive thoughts about it.  Ads containing information about the selection process affect the probability that applicants will apply for a job. For example, ads stating that an in-person interview will be used to select employees result in applicants being more likely to apply for a job than ads indicating that grade point average (GPA) will be a factor. Electronic Media  Whereas 96% of organizations run recruitment advertisements in newspapers, only 26% use television and radio to advertise job openings.  The potential advantage to using electronic media for recruitment is that 95% of Americans listen to the radio at least weekly, and the average person spends four hours a day listening to the radio compared with 45 minutes reading the newspaper. Situation-Wanted Ads  Situation-wanted ads are placed by the applicant rather than by organizations. Some list extensive qualifications, some give applicants’ names, and some are generally more creative than others.  Situation-wanted ads appear to be a useful way of looking for a job, and given that they don’t cost an organization any money, they may be a beneficial method of recruitment. Point-of-Purchase Methods  The point-of-purchase method of recruitment is based on the same “POP” (point-of-purchase) advertising principles used to market products to consumers.  In employee recruitment, job vacancy notices are posted in places where customers or current employees are likely to see them: store windows, bulletin boards, restaurant placemats, and the sides of trucks.  The advantages to this method are that it is inexpensive and it is targeted toward people who frequent the business. The disadvantage is that only a limited number of people are exposed to the sign. Recruiters Campus Recruiters  Many organizations send recruiters to college campuses to answer questions about themselves and interview students for available positions. Not surprisingly, the behavior and attitude of recruiters can greatly influence applicants’ decisions to accept jobs that are offered.  Due to cost considerations, many employers have cut back on the use of on-campus recruiting. As a result, an increasing number of colleges are organizing virtual job fairs, in which their students and alumni can use the Web to “visit” with recruiters from hundreds of organizations at one time. In a virtual job fair, applicants can talk to or instant-message a recruiter, learn more about the company, and submit résumés. Outside Recruiters  More than 75% of organizations use such outside recruiting sources as private employment agencies, public employment agencies, and executive search firms. Private employment agencies and executive search firms are designed to make a profit from recruitment activities, whereas public employment agencies are operated by state and local public agencies and are strictly nonprofit. Employment Agencies and Search Firms Employment Agencies  Employment agencies operate in one of two ways. They charge either the company or the applicant when the applicant takes the job. The amount charged usually ranges from 10% to 30% of the applicant’s first-year salary.  From an organization’s perspective, there are few risks in using an employment agency that charges the applicant for its services. That is, if the employment agency cannot find an appropriate candidate, the organization has not wasted money. But if the employment agency is successful, the organization gets a qualified employee at no cost.  Employment agencies are especially useful if an HR department is overloaded with work or if an organization does not have an individual with the skills and experience needed to select employees properly.  The disadvantage of employment agencies is that a company loses some control over its recruitment process and may end up with undesirable applicants. Executive Search Firms  Executive search firms, better known as “head hunters,” differ from employment agencies in several ways. First, the jobs they represent tend to be higher-paying, non–entry-level positions such as executives, engineers, and computer programmers. Second, reputable executive search firms always charge their fees to organizations rather than to applicants. Third, fees charged by executive search firms tend to be about 30% of the applicant’s first-year salary.  A word of caution about both employment agencies and executive search firms: Because they make their money on the number of applicants they place, they tend to exert tremendous pressure on applicants to take jobs that are offered. But applicants are not obligated to take jobs and should not be intimidated about turning down a position that appears to be a poor match. Public Employment Agencies  The third type of outside recruitment organization is state and local employment agencies. These public employment agencies are designed primarily to help the unemployed find work, but they often offer services such as career advisement and résumé preparation.  F...

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Pricing

Simple, Transparent Pricing

Choose the plan that works for you. All plans include core AI quiz generation features.

Pro (Yearly)

$60 / Yearly

Includes a 5-day free trial.

Get 2 months free! The complete toolset for professionals and educators.

  • Build unlimited quizzes
  • Unlimited questions per quiz
  • Generate quiz from plain text
  • Generate quizzes from a subject or topic
  • Convert any article or webpage into a quiz
  • Upload PDF & Docx files to generate quizzes
  • Engage users with a participant leaderboard
  • Share results with participants

Pro

$6 / Monthly

Includes a 5-day free trial.

The complete toolset for professionals and educators creating unlimited engaging quizzes.

  • Build unlimited quizzes
  • Up to 50 questions per quiz
  • Generate quiz from plain text
  • Generate quizzes from a subject or topic
  • Convert any article or webpage into a quiz
  • Upload PDF & Docx files to generate quizzes
  • Engage users with a participant leaderboard
  • Share results with participants

Basic

Free

For individuals getting started or for casual use.

  • Build up to 1 quizzes in total
  • Up to 5 questions per quiz
  • Generate quiz from plain text
  • Generate quizzes from a subject or topic
  • Convert any article or webpage into a quiz
  • Upload PDF & Docx files to generate quizzes
  • Engage users with a participant leaderboard
  • Share results with participants
FAQ

Frequently Asked Questions

Find clear answers to common inquiries about Quizzify. If you don't see your question here, please don't hesitate to contact our support team.

What is Quizzify?

Quizzify is an AI-powered platform that automatically generates quizzes and assessments from your existing content. Simply provide a PDF, a webpage URL, or paste in text, and our AI will create relevant, high-quality questions in seconds, saving you countless hours of manual work.

Who is Quizzify for?

Quizzify is designed for anyone who needs to create assessments quickly and efficiently. Our primary users are: Educators and Teachers creating study materials and exams. Corporate Trainers and HR Professionals developing training and compliance modules. Content Creators and Marketers looking to boost audience engagement. Students who want to create self-assessment quizzes from their study notes.

How do I get started?

Getting started is easy! Simply sign up for a free account to start creating quizzes immediately. You can generate your first quiz in under a minute without needing a credit card.

What types of content can I use to generate a quiz?

You can use a wide variety of content sources, including: PDF Files: Upload your documents, reports, or textbook chapters. Website URLs: Paste a link to an article, blog post, or any public webpage. Text: Copy and paste text directly from your notes or other sources.

How accurate are the AI-generated questions?

Our AI is trained to have a deep contextual understanding of the source material. It doesn't just look for keywords; it analyzes concepts, facts, and relationships to create questions that are highly relevant and accurate. While we always recommend a quick review, users consistently report a very high level of accuracy.

Can I use content in different languages?

Yes! Our AI supports content in multiple languages. The generated quiz will be in the same language as the source material you provide.

Is there a limit on the amount of content I can use?

Our Free plan has a limit on the length of the source content per quiz, which is generous enough for most articles and documents. Our Pro plan offers a significantly higher limit, suitable for long-form content like entire book chapters or extensive reports.

What types of questions can Quizzify generate?

Our platform can generate a variety of question formats, including multiple-choice, true/false, and open-ended (short answer) questions to keep your assessments dynamic and engaging.

Can I edit the quizzes after they are generated?

Absolutely. You have 100% control over the final product. You can easily add, edit, or delete any question, modify answer options, and adjust the quiz settings before sharing it with your audience.

How can I share my quizzes?

Each quiz you create comes with a unique, shareable link. You can send this link directly to your audience or embed the quiz directly onto your website or Learning Management System (LMS) for a seamless experience.

Is my uploaded content secure?

Yes. We take data security and privacy very seriously. Your content is encrypted both in transit and at rest. We use your content only for the purpose of generating your quiz and do not share it with any third parties.

Who owns the content I upload or provide?

You always retain 100% ownership of the original source content you provide to generate a quiz.

Who owns the quizzes that the AI generates?

You are the owner of the quizzes and questions generated from your content and are free to use them for any personal, educational, or commercial purpose.

What is the difference between the Basic and Pro plans?

The Basic plan is our free starting point that lets you try the core features with a limited number of quizzes. The Pro plan unlocks the full power of Quizzify, giving you unlimited quiz creation, the ability to generate quizzes from all sources (URL, PDF, etc.), and access to advanced features like reporting and leaderboards.

How does the 14-day free trial for the Pro plan work?

When you choose either the Pro Monthly or Pro Yearly plan, your first 14 days are completely free. You get immediate access to all Pro features. If you cancel at any time within those 14 days, you will not be charged.

Can I switch between Pro Monthly and Pro Yearly?

Yes, you can easily switch your billing cycle between monthly and yearly at any time from your account settings page.

Are the quiz limits a one-time total?

Yes, the quiz limit on the Basic plan is a total limit for the lifetime of your free account. The Pro plan offers unlimited quiz creation.

What payment methods do you accept?

We accept all major credit cards, including Visa, Mastercard, and American Express. All payments are processed securely by our payment partner, Stripe.

Do you offer any discounts?

Yes, you receive a significant discount (equivalent to two months free) when you choose the Pro Yearly plan over the monthly option.

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